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A pendulum requires 2 seconds to complete a cycle, which consists of a complete back-and-forth oscillation (extreme
point to equilibrium to opposite extreme point back to equilibrium and finally to the original extreme point). As long as the
amplitude of the motion (the amplitude is the distance from the equilibrium position to the extreme point) is small
compared to the length of the pendulum, the time required for a cycle is independent of the amplitude.

How long does it take to get from one extreme point to the other, how long from an extreme point to equilibrium, and
how long to go from extreme point to equilibrium to opposite extreme point and back to equilibrium?

A complete cycle consists of motion

The cycle can thus be broken into four parts. 

The time required for a cycle does not vary.

Making the reasonable assumption that the time required to move from equilibrium to extreme point is the same as the time required to move from extreme point back to equilibrium, the four parts of the cycle will all take the same time.  If our assumption is correct, we have therefore broken the cycle into four equal quarter-cycles.

In this case it takes 2 seconds to complete a cycle, so the 1/4-cycle time is 1/4 * 2 sec = 1/2 sec or .5 sec.


Related notes:


 

You can't base an analysis of pendulum motion on the assumption of uniform acceleration:


For university physics students (and other interested students whose background includes calculus):

If x(t) is the position function, then its derivative dx/dt, also denoted x '' (t) or just x '', is the instantaneous-velocity function.


Here's a series of key questions that outline how we know that position, velocity and acceleration of an ideal pendulum are all trigonometric functions of clock time. We don't 'officially' encounter them until late in the semester, but they apply to the present situation and they can be answered using knowledge of first-semester calculus. You don't need to answer them now but if you want to try you're welcome: