Calculus II
Class Notes, 1/27/99
Class consisted of students working through example problems. Some of the
highlights are shown here.
Distance students are invited to send solutions to prime-numbered problems from
Section 7.3 for critique by the instructor.
Some highlights are shown below.
To integrate x cos x between the limits x = 3 and x
= 5, we first choose u = x and v' = cos(x) and
work through the details of integration by parts.
- As we obtain the different terms in our antiderivative,
we can apply the limits x = 3 and x = 5 to each in the appropriate
manner, as shown below.
- As an alternative we could have found an antiderivative of
x cos x, using integration by parts, and then applied the limits to
this antiderivative.
- The difference between the two choices is a matter of taste,
and is in any case minor.
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Using practically the same procedure as that used to find the integral
of cos^2(`theta) in the preceding class, we obtain the result in the
first line below for the integral of sin^2(`theta).
- Since sin^2(`theta) = (1 - cos(2`theta)) / 2, we should get the same
result by integrating this expression.
- Using the substitution u = 2 `theta we easily obtain the result in the third
line below.
- Using the trigonometric identity for sin(2 `theta), we
see that this result is identical to our original.
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To 'normalize' the quantum mechanical wave function sin^2(n
`pi x), we find the constant C1 that makes the integral of
C1 sin^2(n `pi x) between limits x = 0 and x = 1
equal to 1.
- We will evaluate the integral using the result obtained earlier for the antiderivative
of sin^2(x).
- We make the substitution u = n `pi x, as shown below.
- In this case it is convenient to transform the limits of the integral
to limits on u: when x = 0 we have u = 0,
and x = 1 implies u = n `pi.
- We evaluate our antiderivative at the limits u = 0 and
u = n `pi.
- At both of these limits sin u is 0,
so the first term of the antiderivative contributes nothing to
the integral.
- We obtain the results shown in the last two lines below.
- Our conclusion is that the wave function is normalized for C1 =
`sqrt(2).
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