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course PHY241
11/29 9
Lab-related questions 101018
`qx001. Suppose a car of mass m coasts along a slight constant incline.
If the magnitudes of its accelerations while traveling up, and down, the incline are respectively a_up and a_down, then what is the magnitude of the frictional force acting on it?
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(aup - adown)/2=Ffric
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What therefore is the coefficient of friction?
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((aup - adown)/2/mg=mu
Fnet=Ffric=mu*mg
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`qx002. Give your data for the acceleration of the car down the incline, and its acceleration up the incline:
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down incline: 19.2, 22.8, 22.8
up incline: -35.3, -55.4, -107.65, -34.6
I took my counts, converted them into seconds and then used 40cm for down the incline, which was length of incline and then used the distances up the incline. I then used ‘ds=1/2a’dt^2, since v0=0, to solve for accelerations. #$&*
`qx003. What therefore is the acceleration down, and what is the acceleration up?
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down incline: 21.6cm/s^2
up incline: -58.24cm/s^2
If you use up for the positive direction on both, I believe you will get negative accelerations for both. To compare these two accelerations you do need to use a common positive direction (up or down, your choice, as long as both are the same).
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`qx004. The only forces acting on the coasting care are the component of its weight parallel to the incline, and the frictional force. The former is always directed down the incline. Let the direction down the incline be chosen as the positive direction.
What is the direction of the frictional force as the car coasts down the incline?
What is the direction of the frictional force as the car coasts up the incline?
Is the net force on the car greater when it coasts down the incline, or when it coasts up?
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upward (opposite of motion)
downward (opposite of motion)
Up the incline (there is more acceleration UP the incline, and therefore Fnet=ma, the Fnet will be greater)
Unless the magnitude of the frictional force is greater than that of the 'parallel component' of the gravitational force, the net force will be down the incline both times.
The frictional force will be as you say, but not the net force.
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`qx005. This question asks for symbols, but the expressions are short and everyone should answer this question:
Let wt_parallel stand for the parallel component of the weight and f_frict for the magnitude of the frictional force.
• What is the expression for the net force on the car as it travels up the incline?
• What is the expression for the net force on the car as it travels down the incline?
• What is the difference in the two expressions?
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Fnet= wt_parallel + f_fric (up incline)
Fnet= wt_parallel - f_fric (down incline)
The signs of f_fric, which friction is opposite of the motion.
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`qx006. If the mass of your car and its load is 120 grams, then based on your calculated accelerations:
• What is the magnitude of the net force on the car as it travels down the incline?
• What is the magnitude of the net force on thc car as it travels up own the incline?
• What is the difference between the magnitudes of these two forces?
• What do you therefore conclude is the force due to friction?
• What would be the corresponding coefficient of friction?
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(120g)*(21.6cm/s^2)=2592 N
(120g)*(-58.24cm/s^2)=-6989 N
2592-(-6989)=9581 N
(-58.24-21.6)/2=-40 [2 Ffric=(a_up)-(a_down), Ffric=(a_up)-(a_down)/2]
The difference in accelerations is only about 37 cm/s^2; half the difference is about 18 cm/s^2.
This is 18/980 = .02 times the acceleration of gravity, indicating a coefficient of friction equal to about .02. That's about what we expect.
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`qx007. A car and magnet, with total mass m, coasts down an incline. A magnet at distance L from the position of release brings the car to rest (just for an instant) after it has coasted a distance `ds, during which its vertical position decreases by distance `dy. If energy lost to friction is negligible, then
• What is the change in the car's gravitational potential energy from release to the instant of rest?
• What is the change in the car's magnetic potential energy between these two points?
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‘dPE=’dy*mg
‘dPE=mg_parallel*’ds
Both answers are correct. Note that the two are in fact equal, since `dy = `ds * sin(phi) and mg_parallel = m g sin(phi), where phi is the angle of the incline.
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If the incline is slight, then the normal force on the car is very nearly equal and opposite its weight. If the coefficient of friction is mu, then how do your answers to the above two questions change?
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Fnet=Ffric=mu*Fnorm=mu*mg
dPE are different
`dPE_grav is the same (friction is affected by, but doesn't affect, the gravitational force).
In the first case all the gravitational PE change is converted to a change in magnetic PE.
In the second case some of the gravitational PE loss is dissipated as friction, so there is less change in magnetic PE.
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`qx008. Assume your car, which has mass 120 grams, coasted 20 cm down an incline of slope .05, and that the coefficient of friction was .03. At the end of the incline, 25 cm from the initial position of the car, is a magnet, which brings the car to rest for an instant, at the end of its 20 cm displacement.
• How far did the car descend in the vertical direction, based on the 20 cm displacement and the slope .05?
• By how much did its gravitational PE therefore change?
• Assuming that the normal force is very nearly equal to the car's weight, what was the frictional force on the car?
• How much work did friction therefore do on the car?
• In the absence of the repelling magnet, how much KE would you therefore expect the car to have at the end of the 20 cm?
• How much magnetic PE do you therefore think is present at the instant of rest?
• What do you think will happen next to this magnetic PE?
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1cm [y/20=0.05, 20*(0.05)=1]
‘dPE=(1cm)(120g)(980cm/s^2)=117600 [Using ‘dPE=’ds_y*mg]
use of units is recommended
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Very good overall. See my notes to clarify a few points.
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