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course phy121

rQǟTΘݫl{մEassignment #016

016. `query 16

Physics I

11-20-2008

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18:18:53

Class notes #15

When a projectile rolls off a ramp with its velocity in the horizontal direction, why do we expect that its horizontal range `dx will be proportional to the square root of its vertical displacement `dy rolling down the ramp?

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RESPONSE -->

confidence assessment: 0

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18:18:56

Class notes #15

When a projectile rolls off a ramp with its velocity in the horizontal direction, why do we expect that its horizontal range `dx will be proportional to the square root of its vertical displacement `dy rolling down the ramp?

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RESPONSE -->

confidence assessment:

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18:21:29

** Since the initial vertical velocity is zero the time of fall for a given setup will always be the same. Therefore the horizontal range is proportional to the horizontal velocity of the projectile.

The horizontal velocity is attained as a result of vertical displacement `dy, with gravitational PE being converted to KE. PE loss is proportional to `dy, so the KE of the ball as it leaves the ramp will be proportional to `dy. Since KE = .5 m v^2, v is proportional to sqrt( KE ), therefore to sqrt(y). **

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RESPONSE -->

I'm not sure I understand this, but will go back and review the associated class notes.

self critique assessment: 2

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18:23:01

In the preceding situation why do we expect that the kinetic energy of the ball will be proportional to `dy?

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RESPONSE -->

If I understood the explaination of the previous question correctly, The PE loss as the ball rolls down the ramp will equal the `dy at the end of the ramp. Since PE and KE are proportional, `dy will be proportional to KE.

confidence assessment: 0

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18:25:10

** This question should have specified just the KE in the vertical direction. The kinetic energy of the ball in the vertical direction will be proportional to `dy.

The reason:

The vertical velocity attained by the ball is vf = `sqrt(v0^2 + 2 a `ds).

Since the initial vertical velocity is 0, for distance of fall `dy we have vf = `sqrt( 2 a `dy ), showing that the vertical velocity is proportional to the square root of the distance fallen.

Since KE is .5 m v^2, the KE will be proportional to the square of the velocity, hence to the square of the square root of `dy.

Thus KE is proportional to `dy. **

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RESPONSE -->

Ok, I see what you are talking about now.

self critique assessment: 2

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18:26:25

Why do we expect that the KE of the ball will in fact be less than the PE change of the ball?

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RESPONSE -->

Because some of that PE will be used up by the rotational force on the ball and friction on the ramp. KE + Ffrict = -PE

and

PE + KE + Ffrict = 0

confidence assessment: 2

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18:26:56

** STUDENT RESPONSE: Because actually some of the energy will be dissapated in the rotation of the ball as it drops?

INSTRUCTOR COMMENT: Good, but note that rotation doesn't dissipate KE, it merely accounts for some of the KE. Rotational KE is recoverable--for example if you place a spinning ball on an incline the spin can carry the ball a ways up the incline, doing work in the process.

The PE loss is converted to KE, some into rotational KE which doesn't contribute to the range of the ball and some of which simply makes the ball spin.

ANOTHER STUDENT RESPONSE: And also the loss of energy due to friction and conversion to thermal energy.

INSTRUCTOR COMMENT: Good. There would be a slight amount of air friction and this would dissipate energy as you describe here, as would friction with the ramp (which would indeed result in dissipation in the form of thermal energy). **

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self critique assessment: 3

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18:29:38

prin phy and gen phy 6.18 work to stop 1250 kg auto from 105 km/hr

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RESPONSE -->

.5 m v^2 = .5 * 1250kg * 105000m^2 = 6.56x10^7Joules

confidence assessment: 2

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18:30:24

The work required to stop the automobile, by the work-energy theorem, is equal and opposite to its change in kinetic energy: `dW = - `dKE.

The initial KE of the automobile is .5 m v^2, and before calculating this we convert 105 km/hr to m/s: 105 km/hr = 105 km / hr * 1000 m / km * 1 hr / 3600 s = 29.1 m/s. Our initial KE is therefore

KE = .5 m v^2 = .5 * 1250 kg * (29.1 m/s)^2 = 530,000 kg m^2 / s^2 = 530,000 J.

The car comes to rest so its final KE is 0. The change in KE is therefore -530,000 J.

It follows that the work required to stop the car is `dW = - `dKE = - (-530,000 J) = 530,000 J.

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RESPONSE -->

I didn't do the m/s conversion, I did m/h. I see where my error was, but had the concept.

As you note, clearly (105 km/hr)^2 is not equal to 105000 m^2 but to 105000 km^2 / hr^2; and kg * m^2 wouldn't give you Joules in any case.

Be very rigorous about the details of the units, in order to avoid such errors.

Otherwise, as you say, you did the problem correctly.

self critique assessment: 2

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18:33:29

prin and gen phy 6.26. spring const 440 N/m; stretch required to store 25 J of PE.

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RESPONSE -->

PE = F * `ds

PE / F = `ds

25J / 440N/m = .06m

confidence assessment: 1

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18:36:56

The force exerted by a spring at equilibrium is 0, and the force at position x is - k x, so the average force exerted between equilibrium and position x is (0 + (-kx) ) / 2 = -1/2 k x. The work done by the spring as it is stretched from equilibrium to position x, a displacment of x, is therefore `dW = F * `ds = -1/2 k x * x = -1/2 k x^2. The only force exerted by the spring is the conservative elastic force, so the PE change of the spring is therefore `dPE = -`dW = - (-1/2 kx^2) = 1/2 k x^2. That is, the spring stores PE = 1/2 k x^2.

In this situation k = 440 N / m and the desired PE is 25 J. Solving PE = 1/2 k x^2 for x (multiply both sides by 2 and divide both sides by k, then take the square root of both sides) we obtain

x = +-sqrt(2 PE / k) = +-sqrt( 2 * 25 J / (440 N/m) ) = +- sqrt( 50 kg m^2 / s^2 / ( (440 kg m/s^2) / m) )= +- sqrt(50 / 440) sqrt(kg m^2 / s^2 * (s^2 / kg) ) = +- .34 sqrt(m^2) = +-.34 m.

The spring will store 25 J of energy at either the +.34 m or the -.34 m position.

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RESPONSE -->

I apparently missed this somewhere.

self critique assessment: 0

440 N / m is not a force, it is the spring constant. Note that N/m is not a unit of force, and J / (N / m) does not yield units of m.

440 N/m is the quantity which when multiplied by the stretch gives you the force.

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You had a few errors in detail but overall appear to understand this well.