Querry assn 21

course mth 173

assignment #021DѼԸ\ē

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Calculus I

11-11-2007

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14:22:21

**** Query Problem 4.8.1 (3d edition 3.8.4). x graph v shape from (0,2) |slope|=1, y graph sawtooth period 2, |y|<=2, approx sine.

Describe the motion of the particle described by the two graphs.

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RESPONSE -->

The particle is moving back and forth from the point of observation, or the particle is moving in a circle on the same plane as the observer.

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14:25:46

** The question was about the motion of the particle.

The graphs are of position vs. time, i.e., x vs. t for a particle moving on the x axis. The slope of a position vs. time graph of a particle is the velocity of the particle.

The first graph has slope -1 for negative values of t. So up to t = 0 the particle is moving to the left at velocity 1. Then when the particle reaches x = 2 the slope becomes +1, indicating that the velocity of the particle instantaneously changes from -1 to +1 at t = 0 and the particle moves back off to the right.

On the second graph the velocity of the particle changes abruptly--instantaneously, in fact--when the graph reaches a sharp point, which it does twice between t = 0 and t = 2. At these points velocity goes from positive to negative or from negative to positive.

Velocity is a maximum when the slope takes its greatest positive value as the graph passes upward through the x axis where the slope is probably 4 (I don't have the graph in front of me so that might be off, but if x goes from -2 to 2 as t changes by 1 the slope will be 4), and is a minimum when the slope takes its lowest negative value as the graph passes through the x axis going downward (slope -4?). So every 2 time units the particle will go from maximum positive velocity 4 to lowest negative velocity -4, as the ball goes from position x = -2 to x = +2 and back. **

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RESPONSE -->

I didn't relize the second graph was part of the problem. Everything that you've said makes sense though.

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14:35:24

Query problem 4.8.21 (3d edition 3.8.16). Ellipse centered (0,0) thru (+-5, 0) and (0, +-7).Give your parameterization of the curve.

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RESPONSE -->

x= cos(t) y=sin(t)

'pi/2< t < 4'pi / 2

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14:39:23

The standard parameterization of a unit circle (i.e., a circle of radius 1) is x = cos(t), y = sin(t), 0 <= t < 2 pi.

An ellipse is essentially a circle elongated in two directions. To elongate the circle in such a way that its major and minor axes are the x and y axes we can simply multiply the x and y coordinates by the appropriate factors. An ellipse through the given points can therefore be parameterized as

x = 5 cos (t), y = 7 sin (t), 0 <= t < 2 pi.

To confirm the parameterization, at t = 0, pi/2, pi, 3 pi/2 and 2 pi we have the respective points (x, y):

(5 cos(0), 7 sin(0) ) = (5, 0)

(5 cos(pi/2), 7 sin(pi/2) ) = (0, 7)

(5 cos(pi), 7 sin(pi) ) = (-5, 0)

(5 cos(3 pi/2), 7 sin(3 pi/2) ) = (0, -7)

(5 cos(pi), 7 sin(pi) ) = (5, 0). **

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RESPONSE -->

I see how you parameterized the ellipse now, I was having trouble with the process and confused myself into making it harder than it really was. You put in the min / max figures corresponding to x and y to the unit circle formula as multipliers, which manipulates the formula to the figure that is given.

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14:46:35

Query 4.8.23 (was 3.8.18). x = t^3 - t, y = t^2, t = 2.What is the equation of the tangent line at t = 2 and how did you obtain it?

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RESPONSE -->

x= t^3 -t

y= t^2

x'= 3t ^2 -1

y'= 2t

at t=2 we get (6, 4) and x'=11 y'=4

so the parametric equations for the tangent line are:

x= 6 + 11t y= 4+ 4t

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14:50:26

** Derivatives are dx/dt = 3t^2 - 1, which at t = 2 is dx/dt = 11, and

dy/dt = 2t, which at t=2 is 4.

We have x = 6 + 11 t, which solved for t gives us t = (x - 6) / 11, and y = 4 + 4 t.

Substituting t = (x-6)/11 into y = 4 + 4 t we get

y = 4 + 4(x-6)/11 = 4/ll x + 20/11.

Note that at t = 2 you get x = 6 so y = 4/11 * 6 + 20/11 = 44/11 = 4.

Alternatively:

The slope at t = 2 is dy/dx = dy/dt / (dx/dt) = 4 / 11.

The equation of the line thru (6, 4) with slope 4/11 is

y - 4 = 4/11 ( x - 6), which simplifies to

y = 4/11 x + 20/11. **

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RESPONSE -->

I thought that the parametric equations were the ones for the tangent line, but they are for the curve, correct? so by finding the seperate velocites of x and y we can then just use them as 'dy and 'dx and work the tangent line as we normally would.

You got parametric equations for the tangent line, and they are correct.

You have x = 6 + 11 t. Thus t = (x - 6) / 11. Plug this into y = 4 + 4t and you get y = 4 + 4 (x - 6) / 11, which is easily rearranged to y - 4 = 4/11 ( x - 6) or to any other form of the solution.

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14:57:01

Query 4.8.12 (3d edition 3.8.22). x = cos(t^2), y = sin(t^2).What is the speed of the particle?

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RESPONSE -->

x= cos(t^2)

y= sin(t^2)

using the chain rule we can derive the derivatives:

f(z)= cos(z)

g(t)= t^2

F(g(t)= f'g * g'

= -sin(t^2) * 2t

f(z)= sin(z)

g(t)= t^2

f(g(t))' = cos(t^2) * 2t

since the speed of the particle is equal to the slope= 'dy/'dx

(cos(t^2) * 2t) / (-sin(t^2) * 2t)

cos(t^2) / -sin(t^2)

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15:02:35

The velocities in the x and y directions are dx / dt and dy / dt.

Since x = cos(t^2) we have

dx/dt = -2(t) sin (t)^2.

Since y = sin(t^2) we have dy/dt = 2(t) cos (t)^2.

Speed is the magnitude of the resultant velocity speed = | v | = sqrt(vx^2 + vy^2) so we have

speed = {[-2(t) sin (t)^2]^2 + [2(t) cos (t)^2]^2}^1/2.

This simplifies to

{-4t^2 sin^2(t^2) + 4 t^2 cos^2(t^2) } ^(1/2) or

(4t^2)^(1/2) { -sin^2(t^2) + cos^2(t^2) }^(1/2) or

2 | t | { -sin^2(t^2) + cos^2(t^2) }^(1/2). **

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RESPONSE -->

I didn't bring my exponants down when finding the derivative of the equation. And I didn't quite get the slope / speed relationship right.

Speed is the magnitude of the resultant velocity speed = | v | = sqrt(vx^2 + vy^2) so we have

This statement is like the pythagoreum theorum so where is the hypotenuse graphically, is it the graph itself, so it's slope?

graphically the velocity vector is represented by the hypotenuse of the triangle formed by the x and y components; vx is in the x direction, vy is in the y direction, the two vectors are drawn head-to-tail and the resultant vector is from the initial point of the component vector to the terminal point of the second. The resultant vector concides with the hypotenuse of the right triangle with legs vx and vy. The slope of the line tangent to the graph of y vs. x is in the direction of the velocity vector; the slope of the tangent line is vy / vx.

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15:06:03

Does the particle ever come to a stop? If so when? If not why not?

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RESPONSE -->

Yes whenever the velocity changes from positive to negative the particle must ""stop"" and change direction

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15:06:41

** The particle isn't moving when v = 0.

v = 2 | t | { -sin^2(t^2) + cos^2(t^2) }^(1/2) is zero when

t = 0 or when

-sin^2(t^2) + cos^2(t^2) = 0.

t = 0 gives x = cos(0) = 1 and y = sin(0) = 0, so it isn't moving at (1, 0).

More generally:

-sin^2(t^2) + cos^2(t^2) = 0 when sin(t^2) = cos(t^2).

Since sin(z) = cos(z) when z = `pi/4 or when x = 5 `pi / 4, and in general when z = (4n + 1) `pi / 4, n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...

sin^2(t^2) = cos^2(t^2) when t^2 = `pi/4 or 5 `pi / 4 or (4n+1)`pi/4, i.e., when

t = +- `sqrt( `pi/4), +- `sqrt(5 `pi / 4), or +-`sqrt(4n+1)`pi/4 for n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ... . **

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RESPONSE -->

okay

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15:29:07

Query problem 3.9.18 (3d edition 3.9.8) (was 4.8.20) square the local linearization of e^x at x=0 to obtain the approximate local linearization of e^(2x)

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RESPONSE -->

y= e^x

y'=e^x

x=0

y= 1

y'= 1

y= mx +b

1= 1(0) +b

1=b

Ytan= x +1

(x+1)(x+1) = x^2 + 2x +2

y= e^(2x)

y'= e^(2x) * 2

=2e^(2x)

x=0

y=1

y'=2 (the same as if we had plugged it into the Ytan^2 equation)

YTan= mx+b

1=2(0) +b

b=1

YTan= 2x +1

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15:33:24

** The local linearization is the tangent line.

The line tangent to y = e^x at x = 0 is the line with slope y ' = e^x evaluated at x = 0, or slope 1. The line passes through (0, e^0) = (0, 1).

The local linearization, or the tangent line, is therefore (y-1) = 1 ( x - 0) or y = x + 1.

The line tangent to y = e^(2x) is y = 2x + 1.

Thus near x = 0, since (e^x)^2 = e^(2x), we might expect to have (x + 1)^2 = 2x + 1.

This is not exactly so, because (x + 1)^2 = x^2 + 2x + 1, not just 2x+1.

However, near x = 0 we see that x^2 becomes insignificant compared to x (e.g., .001^ 2 = .000001), so for sufficiently small x we see that x^2 + 2x + 1 is as close as we wish to 2x + 1. **

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RESPONSE -->

when I got my Ytan^2 I said in the answer(x + 1)^2 = x^2 + 2x + 2 but this was a typo, I had written down the correct answer. As long as x is very near 0 this equation is true.

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15:35:19

What do you get when you multiply the local linearization of e^x by itself, and in what sense is it consistent with the local linearization of e^(2x)? Which of the two expressions for e^(2x) is more accurate and why?

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RESPONSE -->

you get: (x + 1)^2 = x^2 + 2x + 1 the actual tangent line for e(2x) is closer because it is the tangent line and it will be fairly close even when the x^2 has thrown off the other equation.

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15:37:02

** The local linearization of e^(2x) is y = 2x + 1.

The square of the local linearization 1 + x of e^x is y = (x + 1)^2 = x^2 + 2x + 1 .

The two functions differ by the x^2 term. Near x = 0 the two graphs are very close, since if x is near 0 the value of x^2 will be very small. As we move away from x = 0 the x^2 term becomes more significant, giving the graph of the latter a slightly upward concavity, which for awhile nicely matches the upward concavity of y = e^(2x). The linear function cannot do this, so the square of the local linearization of e^x more closely fits the e^(2x) curve than does the local linearization of e^(2x). **

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RESPONSE -->

okay I was wrong, because it isn't linear it will stay with the graph rather than travel away from it as the tangent line does.

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15:58:30

Query problem 3.9.22 (3d edition 3.9.12) T = 2 `pi `sqrt(L / g). How did you show that `dT = T / (2 L) * `dL?

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RESPONSE -->

I don't understand how T / 2L is derived from T = 2 `pi `sqrt(L / g) I have the derivative as T'= .5L ^(-.5) and doesn't 'dt= T' * 'dL ?

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16:01:09

** `sqrt(L/g) can be written as `sqrt(L) / `sqrt(g). It's a good idea to make this separation because L is variable, g is not.

So dT / dL = 2 `pi / `sqrt(g) * [ d(`sqrt(L) ) / dL ].

[ d(`sqrt(L) ) / dL ] is the derivative of `sqrt(L), or L^(1/2), with respect to L. So

[ d(`sqrt(L) ) / dL ] = 1 / 2 L^(-1/2) = 1 / (2 `sqrt(L)).

Thus dT / dL = 2 `pi / [ `sqrt(g) * 2 `sqrt(L) ] = `pi / [ `sqrt(g) `sqrt(L) ] .

This is the same as T / (2 L), since T / (2 L) = 2 `pi `sqrt(L / g) / (2 L) = `pi / (`sqrt(g) `sqrt(L) ).

Now since dT / dL = T / (2 L) we see that the differential is

`dT = dT/dL * `dL or

`dT = T / (2 L) * `dL. **

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RESPONSE -->

so the derivative was found by inplicit means instead of doing it as we have been, also it made it easier to understand when the 'sqrt function was broken down.

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16:03:11

If we wish to estimate length to within 2%, within what % must we know L?

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RESPONSE -->

If you are estimating length withen 2% then you will know L to within 2% when it is estimated, as L gets larger then so will the descrepancy.

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16:04:59

** If `dL = .02 L then `dT = T / (2 L) * .02 L = .02 T / 2 = .01 T.

This tells us that to estimate T to within 1% we need to know L to within 2%. **

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RESPONSE -->

I think that there might have been a typo in the prevous question, but when your estimating L within 2% yo must know T to within 1% because of the fraction in 'dT

You are right, I did mix up the symbols.

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16:17:00

Query problem 4.7.4 (3d edition 4.8.9) graphs similar to -x^3 and x^3 at a.

What is the sign of lim{a->a} [ f(x)/ g(x) ]?

How do you know that the limit exists and how do you know that the limit has the sign you say it does?

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RESPONSE -->

using L' Hopitals rule (-x^3)/(x^3) = (-3x^2) / (3x^2) lim{a->a} since the negative dominates then a will be negative.

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16:19:15

** If one graph is the negative of the other, as appears to be the case, then for any x we would have f(x) / g(x) = -1. So the limit would have to be -1.

It doesn't matter that at x = 0 we have 0 / 0, because what happens AT the limiting point doesn't matter, only what happens NEAR the limiting point, where 'nearness' is unlimited by always finite (i.e., never 0). **

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RESPONSE -->

so the (-3x^2) / (3x^2) would have basically simplified to -1 / 1 or -1 which is our limit.

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16:23:14

Query 4.7.8 (3d edition 3.10.8) lim{x -> 0} [ x / (sin x)^(1/3) ].What is the given limit and how did you obtain it?

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RESPONSE -->

x / (sinx) ^1/3) = x / (1/3 cosx ^ -2/3) = 3x^1/3 / x

= 3 / x^1/3 as x-> 0

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16:25:08

As x -> 0 both numerator f(x) = x and the denominator g(x) = sin(x)^(1/3) both approach 0 as a limit. So we use l'Hopital's Rule

f ' (x) = 1 and g ' (x) = 1/3 sin(x)^(-2/3), so f ' (x) / g ' (x) = 1 / (1/3 sin(x)^(-2/3) ) = 3 sin(x)^(2/3).

Since as x -> 0 we have sin(x) -> 0 the limiting value of f ' (x) / g ' (x) is 0.

It follows from l'Hopital's Rule that the limiting value of f(x) / g(x) is also zero.

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RESPONSE -->

The book used a problem similar to this to show the ""dominance"" of a function, I understand what it means by ""Dominance"" but I don't understand exactly what indicates it using I'Hopital's Rule or when to use that indication. PLease Explain.

The book probably showed that any increasing exponential function dominates any increasing power function.

For example consider e^x / x. Both expressions approach infinity as x approaches infinity. However e^x approaches infinity much 'faster', so it 'dominates'. To see that this is true we apply l'Hopital's rule. Both functions satisfy the conditions of the Rule, so we consider what happens to the derivatives.

The derivatives are e^x and 1. So we see that the slopes of e^x increase without bound, while those of x remain constant. The function whose slopes increase without bound 'wins' the race over the function with constant slopes, or 'dominates'; we conclude that there is no limit to how much greater e^x is than x.

The same is true of e^x / x^n. Repeated applications of the rule give us e^x / (n x^(n-1)), then e^x / (n ( n-1) x^(n-2)), etc., until we finally obtain e^x / n!. n! might be a big number, but it is constant, and e^x will eventually exceed it by as much as we might wish. This ensures that the function e^x / (n ( n-1) (n-2) ... (2) x ) in the preceding step has infinite limit, which ensures that the function in the step before this has infinite limit, etc., until we finally conclude that e^x / x^n has infinite limit. So e^x dominates any fixed-power function.

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16:30:56

What are the local linearizations of x and sin(x)^(1/3) and how do they allow you to answer the preceding question?

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RESPONSE -->

The local linearizations would vary with regard to x but they would allow you to more easily compare sin(x)^(1/3) to x by extending a point on the graph.

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16:31:54

** The local linearization of the numerator is just y = x.

The denominator doesn't have a local linearization at 0; rather it approaches infinite slope.

This means that as x -> 0 the ratio of the denominator function to the numerator function increases without bound, making the values of numerator / denominator approach zero. **

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RESPONSE -->

okay

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16:33:34

Query Add comments on any surprises or insights you experienced as a result of this assignment.

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RESPONSE -->

I am understand how to ""use"" I'Hoptals rule but I don't understand how to read it. although, I think that I have the parametric equations semi-undercontroll.

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16:35:13

I am confused on l'Hopital`s rule:

How do you know when it can or cannot be used to evaluate a fn?

I understand that f(a)=g(a)=0 and g'(x) cannot equal zero, but what are the other limitations?

** Those are the only limitations. Check that these conditions hold, then you are free to look at the limiting ratio f '(a) / g ' (a) of the derivatives.

For example, on #18 the conditions hold for (a) (both limits are zero) but not for (b) (numerator isn't 0) and not for (c) (denominator doesn't have a limit). **

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RESPONSE -->

this helps some, but I still need help with dominance. But it's basically the ratio of one to the other as they near the limit. right?

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If the limit as we approach some point, or as we approach infinity, of f(x) / g(x) is zero then g(x) 'dominates' f(x); if the limit is infinity then f(x) 'dominates' g(x). Hopefully my preceding note helped. If not, be sure to ask further.

You appear to be doing well here.