course Phy 201 7/27 6:10PM Question: `qQuery class notes #37
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Given Solution: `a** Position at clock time is x = Acos(`omega* t) Velocity = -`omega *A*sin(`omega* t) Accel = -`omega * A * cos(`omega* t) University Physics students should note that velocity and acceleration are the first and second derivatives of the position function. ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): OK Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: `qHow is the acceleration of the pendulum related to the centripetal acceleration of the point on the reference circle? YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: Centripetal acceleration is found using the formula v^2/r We can use the same concepts to expand this formula for the circle’s acceleration as above Ace;eration= v^2/r*sin(theta) confidence rating: 2 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: STUDENT ANSWER: a = -`omega A sin(`omega *t) and aCent = v^2/r for the circle modeling SHM INSTRUCTOR AMPLIFICATION: ** The centripetal acceleration of the point on the reference circle, which acts toward the center of the circle, has two components, one in the x direction and one in the y direction. The component of the centripetal acceleration in the direction of the motion of the oscillator is equal to the acceleration of the oscillator. If the oscillator is at position theta then the centripetal acceleration has direction -theta (back toward the center of the circle, opposite to the position vector). The centripetal acceleration is aCent = v^2 / r; so the x and y components are respectively ax = aCent * cos(-theta) = v^2 / r * cos(theta) and ay = aCent * sin(-theta) = -v^2 / r * sin(theta). ** How is the kinetic energy of the pendulum related to its restoring force constant k, the amplitude of its motion, and its position x? ** The PE of the pendulum at displacement x is .5 k x^2. By conservation of energy, if nonconservative forces are negligible, we find that the KE of the pendulum at position x is.5 k A^2 - .5 k x^2. This result is obtained from the fact that at max displacement A the KE is zero, and the KE change from displacement A to displacement x is the negative of the PE change between these points. Thus .5 m v^2 = .5 k A^2 - .5 k x^2. Solving for v we have v = +- sqrt( .5 k / m * (A^2 - x^2) ) . ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): OK, I don’t understand why the answer is so expanded. Isnt the equation I gave the solution?
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Given Solution: `aGOOD STUDENT ANSWER: If we pullback a pendulum of length L a distance x (much smaller than L), and stop the motion at the equilibrium point (vertical limit of motion) a washer on the pendulum will become a projectile and project off the pendulum, to land at a distance from which we can determine the horizontal velocity of the washer. That velocity is the same as the max velocity of the pendulum, since the max velocity is that which is at the lowest point in its path. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ok Self-critique Rating: ok ********************************************* Question: `qPrinciples of Physics and General College Physics Problem 11.3. Springs compress 5.0 mm when 68 kg driver gets in; frequency of vibration of 1500-kg car? YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: the driver weighs 68 kg and his weight will be 68kg*9.8m/s/s. This will be about 666N. K is equal to this value divided by .005m which gives 133200N/m. If we want to find the frequency we first need omega which is sqroot(133200n/m/1570kg) which will be about 9rad/sec dividing this into 2pi gives 1.4cycles/sec for the frequency. confidence rating: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: `aFrom the weight of the driver and the compression of the spring, we determine the spring constant (the 'stiffness' of the spring in N / m): driver weight of 68 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 = 670 N compresses the spring .05 meters, so since | F | = k | x | we have k = | F | / | x | = 670 N / (.005 m) = 134 000 N / m. Now from the force constant and the mass of the system we have omega = sqrt(k / m) = sqrt( (134 000 N/m) / (1570 kg) ) = 9 sqrt( (N/m) / kg) ) = 9 sqrt( (kg / s^2) / kg) = 9 rad / s, approximately, or about 1.5 cycles / second. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): OK Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: `qPrinciples of Physics and General College Physics problem 11.30: Pendulum with period 0.80 s on Earth; period on Mars, where acceleration of gravity is 0.37 times as great. YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: Period here is .80 sec. We can set up the equation using the formula period=sqroot(k/m) Since k= m g / L we have period= sqroot(g/L) This is proportional to g which is sqroot(1/.36)=1.6 1.6(80sec)=period on mars which will be 128 sec confidence rating: 2 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: `aThe period of a angular frequency harmonic oscillator is sqrt(k / m), and the time required for a cycle, i.e., the period of the cycle, is the time required to complete a cycle of 2 pi radians. For a pendulum we have k = sqrt( m g / L ), where g is the acceleration of gravity. Thus for a pendulum omega = sqrt(k / m) = sqrt( (m g / L) / m) = sqrt( g / L). From this we see that for a given length, the frequency of the pendulum is proportional to sqrt(g). The period is inversely proportional to the frequency, so the period is inversely proportional to sqrt(g). Thus we have period on Mars / period on Earth = sqrt( gravitational acceleration on Earth / gravitational acceleration on Mars) = sqrt( 1 / .37) = 1.7, approximately. So the period on Mars would be about 1.7 * .80 sec = 1.3 sec, approx. As an alternative to the reasoning or proportionality, we can actually determine the length of the pendulum, and use this length with the actual acceleration of gravity on Mars. We have period = 2 pi rad / angular frequency = 2 pi rad / (sqrt( g / L) ) = 2 pi rad * sqrt(L / g). We know the period and acceleration of gravity on Earth, so we can solve for the length: Starting with period = 2 pi sqrt(L / g)) we square both sides to get period^2 = 4 pi^2 L / g. Multiplying both sides by g / (4 pi^2) we get L = g * period^2 / (4 pi^2) = 9.8 m/s^2 * (0.80 sec)^2 / (4 pi^2) = .15 meters. The pendulum is .15 meters, or 15 cm, long. On Mars the acceleration of gravity is about 0.37 * 9.8 m/s^2 = 3.6 m/s^2, approx.. The period of a pendulum on Mars would therefore be period = 2 pi sqrt(L / g) = 2 pi sqrt(.15 m / (3.6 m/s^2)) = 1.3 seconds, approx. This agrees with the 1.3 second result from the proportionality argument. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): I used 80 sec not .8 sec. This gave a huge error but my work seems to be similar. Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: `qQuery gen problem 11.14 80 N to compress popgun spring .2 m with .15 kg ball. YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: PE=.5(k)(A^2) A is .2m We can find k which is 80n/.2m which will give 400 n/m/ Therefore PE will be .5(400n/m)(.2m) which gives 40Joules. We can then solve for velocity which will be 40Joules=.5(k)(A^2) where k=400n/m therefore velocity will be 10.3m/s confidence rating: 2 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: `a** The PE of the system will be .5 k A^2, where A = .2 m and k = F / x = 80 N / (.2 m) = 400 N / m. The KE of the released ball will in the ideal case, which is assumed here, be .5 m v^2 = .5 k A^2. Solving for v we obtain v = +- sqrt( k A^2 / m ) = +- sqrt( 400 N/m * (.2 m)^2 / (.15 kg) ) = +- sqrt( 106 m^2 / s^2) = +-10.3 m/s, approx. The speed of the ball is the magnitude 10.3 m/s of the velocity. ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): OK Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: `qQuery gen phy problem 11.24 spring 305 N/m amplitude 28 cm suspended mass .260 kg. YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: we need to find the frequency here. To do this we have to find omega which is sqroot of (k/m) k is equal to 305n/m and .260 is the mass. Therefore omega will be 34rad/sec We then can find the equation using y=Asin(omega t) so we have y=28cmsin(34rad/sec*t) confidence rating: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: `a**The solution given here is for restoring force constant 210 N/m and mass .250 kg. You should be able to adapt your solution accordingly, and you should understand why the angular frequency will be sqrt(305 * .250 / (210 * .260)) times as great as that given here.The angular frequency of the oscillation (the angular velocity of the point on the reference circle) is omega = sqrt(k / m), with k = 210 N/m and m = .250 kg. The equation of motion could be y = A sin(omega * t). We obtain omega = sqrt( 210 N/m / (.250 kg) ) = sqrt( 840 s^-2) = 29 rad/s, approx.. A is the amplitude 28 cm of motion. So the equation could be y = 28 cm sin(29 rad/s * t). The motion could also be modeled by the function 28 sin (29 rad/s * t + theta0) for any theta0. The same expression with cosine instead of sine would be equally valid, though for any given situation theta0 will be different for the cosine model than for the sine model. ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): OK Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: `qQuery Add comments on any surprises or insights you experienced as a result of this assignment. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): A lot of this would have made physics 2 much easier I see what you meant.