query_10

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course phy 201

10/8 6:45 am

If your solution to stated problem does not match the given solution, you should self-critique per instructions at

http://vhcc2.vhcc.edu/dsmith/geninfo/labrynth_created_fall_05/levl1_22/levl2_81/file3_259.htm

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Your solution, attempt at solution. If you are unable to attempt a solution, give a phrase-by-phrase interpretation of the problem along with a statement of what you do or do not understand about it. This response should be given, based on the work you did in completing the assignment, before you look at the given solution.

010. `query 10

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Question: `qQuery introductory problem set 3 #'s 7-12

Describe two ways to find the KE gain of an object of known mass under the influence of a known force acting for a given time, one way based on finding the distance the object moves and the other on the change in the velocity of the object, and explain why both approaches reach the same conclusion.

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Your solution:

Known: mass, force, time; You can find the acceleration of the object by using the force and the mass of the object. Once you have the acceleration, you can find the change in the velocity of the object. Since KE = ˝ mv^2, you have the necessary values to find the KE that way. Now, change in KE is also equivalent to the work done on an object. The work done on an object by a force is fNet * ds; Hence, finding the change in position can then be utilized to find the same value.

confidence rating #$&*:

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Given Solution:

First way: KE change is equal to the work done by the net force, which is net force * displacement, or Fnet * `ds.

Second way: KE change is also equal to Kef - KE0 = .5 m vf^2 - .5 m v0^2. **

STUDENT QUESTION:

I wasn’t sure what equation to use to find KE the second way. What does Kef stand for?
INSTRUCTOR RESPONSE:

In general f stands for 'final' and 0 for 'initial'. Just as v0 and vf stand for initial and final velocities, we'll use KEf and KE0 to stand for initial and final kinetic energies.

STUDENT QUESTION:

Ok I know the other equation now but I still don’t really understand it. How come you multiply each velocity by 0.5? I don’t really understand the second equation KE = 1/2 m v^2
INSTRUCTOR RESPONSE

On one level, KE = 1/2 m v^2 is simply a formula you have to know.

It isn't hard to derive that formula, as you'll see soon, and the 1/2 arises naturally enough. A synopsis of the derivation:

If force F_net is applied to mass m through displacement `ds then:
a = F_net / m, andvf^2 = v0^2 + 2 a `ds
It's not difficult to rearrange the result of these two equations to get F_net * `ds = 1/2 m vf^2 - 1/2 m v0^2.
You'll see the details soon, but that's where the formula KE = 1/2 m v^2 comes from; the 1/2 or 0.5 is part of the solution.

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Self-critique (if necessary):

I totally blanked on one of the equations. I will endeavor to remember it in the future.

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Self-critique Rating:3

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Question: `q (This question applies primarily to General College Physics students and University Physics students, though Principles of Physics students are encouraged, if they wish, to answer the question). In terms of the equations of motion why do we expect that a * `ds is proportional to the change in v^2, and why do we then expect that the change in v^2 is proportional to Fnet `ds?

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Your solution:

Acceleration is in units of m/s^2 (or similar); Hence, if you multiply it by the change in position, you will end up with m^2/s^2 (or similar). Since velocity is measure in units of m/s (or similar) then v^2 would be m^2/s^2 (or similar). Likewise: fNet is measured in Newtons, or kg m/s^2; multiplying this by change in position gives us kg m^2/s^2; Since the mass unit is being multiplied by, it stands to reason that scaling the position/time part would scale the entire value accordingly.

confidence rating #$&*:

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Given Solution:

In a nutshell:

• since vf^2 = v0^2 + 2 a `ds, a `ds = 1/2 (vf^2 - v0^2), so a `ds is proportional to the change in v^2

• since F_net = m a, F_net * `ds = m a * `ds so F_net * `ds is proportional to a * `ds

• Thus F_net `ds is proportional to a * `ds, which in turn is proportional to the change in v^2.

• Thus F_net `ds is proportional to the change in v^2.

More detail:

It's very important in physics to be able to think in terms of proportionality.

• To say that y is proportional to x is to say that for some k, y = k x.

• That is, y is a constant multiple of x.

To say that a * `ds is proportional to the change in v^2 is to say that

• for some k, a * `ds = k * ( change in v^2)--i.e., that

• a * `ds is a constant multiple of the change in v^2.

In terms of the equations of motion, we know that

vf^2 = v0^2 + 2 a `ds so

a `ds = 1/2 (vf^2 - v0^2), which is 1/2 the change in v^2.

So a `ds is a constant multiple (1/2) of the change in v^2.

Formally we have

a `ds = k ( change in v^2) for the specific k value k = 1/2.

Now since Fnet = m a, we conclude that

Fnet * `ds = m a * `ds

and since a `ds = k * ( change in v^2) for the specific k value k = 1/2, we substitute for a * `ds to get

Fnet `ds = m * k * (change in v^2), for k = 1/2.

Now m and k are constants, so m * k is constant. We can therefore revise our value of k, so that it becomes m * 1/2 or m / 2

With this revised value of k we have

Fnet * `ds = k * (change in v^2), where now k has the value m / 2.

That is, we don't expect Fnet * `ds to be proportional to the change in velocity v, but to the change in the square v^2 of the velocity.

STUDENT COMMENT: I am still a bit confused. Going through the entire process I see how these values correlate but on my own I am not coming up with the correct solution. I am getting lost after we discover the a `ds is a constant multiple of (1/2) the change in v^2. Is it that I should simply substitute the k into the equation? Or am I missing something else?
INSTRUCTOR RESPONSE: The short answer is that by the fourth equation of uniformly accelerated motion, a `ds = 1/2 (vf^2 - v0^2), which is half the change in v^2, so that a `ds is proportional to the change in v^2. (The proportionality constant between a `ds and change in v^2 is the constant number 1/2).
F_net = m a, where m is the mass of the object. So F_net is proportional to a. (The proportionality constant between F_net and a is the constant mass m).
Thus F_net `ds is proportional to a `ds, which we have seen is proportional to the change in v^2.
The conclusion is the F_net `ds is proportional to the change in v^2.
(The proportionality constant between F_net `ds and change in v^2 is 1/2 m.)

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Self-critique (if necessary):

I was able to draw the distinctions from the units that come at the end of the equations. It seems I never jump strait to “Use and equation to reason this out” when asked this kind of question.

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Self-critique Rating:3

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Reasoning by units is often valuable, but just because the units work out doesn't mean the process is valid. For example you can get the units of KE by multiplying mass * velocity^2, and miss the factor 1/2. Or you could multiply units of momentum by units of distance and get units of work-enegy, but momentum * displacement is a meaningless quantity.

*@

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Self-critique Rating:

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Question: How do our experimental results confirm or cause us to reject this hypothesis?

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Your solution:

The results I believe would cause us to confirm it. There is no denying the relationship between these values.

confidence rating #$&*:

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Given Solution:

The explanation for this result:

On a ramp with fixed slope the acceleration is constant so

• a `ds is simply proportional to `ds

• specifically a `ds = k * `ds for k = a.

In the preceding question we saw why

• a * `ds = k * (change in v^2), with k = 1/2.

In our experiment the object always accelerated from rest. So

the change in v^2 for each trial would be from 0 to vf^2.

the change would therefore be just

• change in v^2 = vf^2 - 0^2 = vf^2.

Thus if a `ds is proportional to the change in vf^2, our graph of vf^2 vs. a `ds should be linear.

• The slope of this graph would just be our value of k in the proportionality a * `ds = k * (change in v^2), where as we have seen k = 1/2

We wouldn't even need to determine the actual value of the acceleration a. To confirm the hypothesis all we need is a linear graph of vf^2 vs. `ds.

(we could of course use that slope with our proportionality to determine a, if desired)

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Self-critique (if necessary):

I thought the question was referring to the experiments done in class. Not that I should create a reference myself with more equations. The same problem as I listed in the last critique seems to hold still.

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Self-critique Rating:3

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Question: `qGeneral College Physics and Principles of Physics: convert 35 mi/hr to km/hr, m/s and ft/s.

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Your solution:

I mile = roughly 1.6 kilometers; 1 meter = roughly 3.3 feet; I hour = 60 seconds; Value: 35 mi/hr; 56 km/hr; 3.36 m/s; 11.1 ft/s

confidence rating #$&*:

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Given Solution:

`aWe need a conversions between miles and meters, km and ft, and we also need conversions between hours and seconds.

We know that 1 mile is 5280 ft, and 1 hour is 3600 seconds. We also know that 1 inch is 2.54 cm, and of course 1 foot is 12 inches.

1 mile is therefore 1 mile * 5280 ft / mile = 5280 ft,

5280 ft = 5280 ft * 12 in/ft * 2.54 cm / in = 160934 cm, which is the same as 160934 cm * 1 m / (100 cm) = 1609.34 m, which in turn is the same as 1609.34 m * 1 km / (1000 m) = 1.60934 km.

Thus

35 mi / hr = 35 mi / hr * (1.60934 km / 1 mi) = 56 (mi * km / (mi * hr) ) = 56 (mi / mi) * (km / hr) = 56 km / hr.

We can in turn convert this result to m / s: 56 km/hr * (1000 m / km) * (1 hr / 3600 sec) = 15.6 (km * m * hr) / (hr * km * sec) = 15.6 (km / km) * (hr / hr) * (m / s) = 15.6 m/s.

The original 35 mi/hr can be converted directly to ft / sec: 35 mi/hr * ( 5280 ft / mi) * ( 1 hr / 3600 sec) = 53.33 ft/sec.

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Self-critique (if necessary):

I just went online and looked up the direct conversions between each value. The results ended up relatively similar though. With the exception of the last one. I should have directly calculated that one from the initial.

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Self-critique Rating:3

@&

All you need to know is that 1 cm = 2.54 m, and 1 mile = 5280 feet.

Conversion factors are useful, but you should also be able to do most conversions based on what you know, not what you can look up.

*@

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Question: Openstax problem 2.16: A cheetah can accelerate from rest to a speed of 30.0 m/s in 7.00 s

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Your solution:

What am I supposed to do with this information? The problem does not state what should be done with the given data.

confidence rating #$&*:

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Given Solution:

It seems unlikely that the significant figures in this problem are realistic. What are the chances that an animal's speed and the corresponding time interval are both measured to 3-significant-figure accuracy (which might be realistic, though with different parts of the animal's body at any instant having different forward speeds the velocity measurement would be very challenging), and both yield such round numbers (1 in 100 chance of each means 1 in 10 000 chance this would occur).

However if we accept the significant figures specified for this problem, the result can be obtained as follows:

Acceleration is rate of change of velocity with respect to clock time, so that

• acceleration = (change in velocity) / (change in clock time) = 30.0 meters / (7.00 seconds) = 4.29 meters / second.

Note that 30 / 7 = 4.28571428571... , but with 3-significant-figure information we can only be confident of our 3-significant-figure rounding of this result.

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Self-critique (if necessary):

I am still somewhat confused as to what exactly I was supposed to do in this question. It simply gave data, and then didn’t say “find this” or “do this with the data”.

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Self-critique Rating:2

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Question: `qGen phy and prin phy prob 2.16: car accelerates uniformly from rest to 95 km/h in 6.2 s; find acceleration

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Your solution:

v0 = 0 km/h; vf = 95 km/h; time elapsed: 6.2 seconds: change in velocity: 95 km/h; change velocity to m/s for easier utilization with seconds: roughly 26.39 m/s; average acceleration: 4.26 m/s^2;

confidence rating #$&*:

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Given Solution:

`a** 95 km/hr = 95,000 m / (3600 sec) = 26.3 m/s.

So change in velocity is `dv = 26.3 m/s = 0 m/s = 26.3 m/s.

Average acceleration is aAve = `dv / `dt = 26.3 m/s / (6.2 s) = 4.2 m/s^2.

Extension: One 'g' is the acceleration of gravity, 9.8 m/s^2. So the given acceleration is

-4.2m/s^2 / [ (9.8 m/s^2) / 'g' ] = -.43 'g'.

STUDENT QUESTION:

How did we know that the final velocity was 0?


INSTRUCTOR RESPONSE:

The final velocity was 0 because the car came to rest.


Summary of what we were given:

• Initial velocity is 95 km/hr, or 26.3 m/s.

• Final velocity is 0, since the car came to rest.

• The velocity makes this change in a time interval of 6.2 seconds.


We can easily reason out the result using the definition of acceleration:


The acceleration is the rate at which velocity changes with respect to clock time, which by the definition of rate is (change in velocity) / (change in clock time)
The change in velocity from the initial 0 m/s to the final 26.3 m/s is 26.3 m/s, so
acceleration = change in velocity / change in clock time = 26.3 m/s / (6.2 s) = 4.2 m/s^2.


We could also have used the equations of uniformly accelerated motion, with vf = 26.3 m/s, v0 = 0 and `dt = 6.2 seconds. However in this case it is important to understand that the definition of acceleration can be applied directly, with no need of the equations. (solution using equations: 2d equation is vf = v0 + a `dt, which includes our three known quantities; solving for a we get a = (vf - v0) / `dt = (26.3 m/s - 0 m/s) / (6.2 s) = 4.2 m/s^2.)

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Self-critique (if necessary):

OK

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Self-critique Rating:OK

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#*&!

&#Your work looks good. See my notes. Let me know if you have any questions. &#