#$&* course Mth 174 174assignment # 8
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Questions from Problem Assignment: ********************************************* Question: Explain the convergence or divergence of a p series; that is, explain why the p series converges for p > 1 and diverges for p <= 1. YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: When p>1, the antiderivative approaches 0 as x approaches infinity. It would be a negative-power function and the p series converges. When p<1, the antiderivative is a positive-power function. It approaches infinity as x approaches infinity. Therefore, the p series diverges. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: ** The key is the antiderivative. For p > 1 the antiderivative is still a negative power and approaches 0 as x -> infinity. For p < 1 it's a positive power and approaches infinity--hence diverges. For p = 1 the antiderivative is ln x, which also approches infinity. ** ** An integral converges if the limit of its Riemann sums can be found and is finite. Roughly this corresponds to the area under the curve (positive for area above and negative for area below the axis) being finite and well-defined (consider for example the area under the graph of the sine function, from 0 to infinity, which could be regarded as finite but it keeps fluctuating as the sine goes positive then negative, so it isn't well-defined). ** ** There is very little difference in the rapidity with which 1/x^1.01 approaches zero and the rapidity of the approach of 1 / x^.99. You would never be able to tell by just looking at the partial sums which converges and which diverges. In fact just looking at partial sums you would expect both to converge, because they diverge so very slowly. If you graph 1 / x^.99, 1 / x and 1 / x^1.01 you won't notice any significant difference between them. The first is a little higher and the last a little lower past x = 1. You will never tell by looking at the graphs that any of these functions either converge or diverge. However if you find the antiderivatives you can tell pretty easily. The antiderivatives are 100 x^.01, ln(x) and -100 x^-.01. On the interval from, say, x = 1 to infinity, the first antiderivative 100 x^.01 will be nice and finite at x = 1, but as x -> infinity is .01 power will also go to infinity. This is because for any N, no matter how great, we can find a solution to 100 x^.01 = N: the solution is x = (N / 100) ^ 100. For this value of x and for every greater value of x, 100 x^.01 will exceed N. The antiderivative function grows without bound as x -> infinity. Thus the integral of 1 / x^.99 diverges. On this same interval, the second antiderivative ln(x) is 0 when x = 0, but as x -> infinity its value also approaches infinity. This is because for any N, no matter how large, ln(x) > N when x > e^N. This shows that there is no upper bound on the natural log, and since the natural log is the antiderivative of 1 / x this integral diverges. On the same interval the third antiderivative -100 x^-.01 behaves very much differently. At x = 1 this function is finite but negative, taking the value -100. As x -> infinity the negative power makes x-.01 = 1 / x^.01 approach 0, since as we solve before the denominator x^.01 approaches infinity. Those if we integrate this function from x = 1 to larger and larger values of x, say from x = 1 to x = b with b -> infinity, we will get F(b) - F(1) = -100 / b^.01 - (-100 / 1) = -100 / b^.01 + 100. The first term approaches 0 and b approaches infinity and in the limit we have only the value 100. This integral therefore converges to 100. We could look at the same functions evaluated on the finite interval from 0 to 1. None of the functions is defined at x = 0 so the lower limit of our integral has to be regarded as a number which approaches 0. The first function gives us no problem, since its antiderivative 100 x^.01 remains finite over the entire interval [0, 1], and we find that the integral will be 100. The other two functions, however, have antiderivatives ln(x) and -100 x^-.01 which are not only undefined at x = 0 but which both approach -infinity as x -> 0. This causes their integrals to diverge. These three functions are the p functions y = 1 / x^p, for p = .99, 1 and 1.01. This example demonstrates how p = 1 is the 'watershed' for convergence of these series either on an infinite interval [ a, infinity) or a finite interval [0, a]. ** More generally: ** If p > 1 then the antiderivative is a negative-power function, which approaches 0 as x -> infinity. So the limit as b -> infinity of the integral from 1 to b of 1 / x^p would be finite. If p < 1 the antiderivative is a positive-power function which approaches infinity as x -> infinity. So the limit as b -> infinity of the integral from 1 to b of 1 / x^p would be divergent. These integrals are the basis for many comparison tests. ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: `q explain how we know that the integral from 0 to infinity of e^(-a x) converges for a > 0. YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: The function is decreasing. The function 1/(x^0.99) is also decreasing on the interval but does not converge. E^(-ax) converges because its antiderivative is -1/a e^(-ax), and this approaches zero as x approaches infinity. From 0 to b, the integral is -1/a e^(-ab) - (-1/a e^0) = -1/a e^(-ab) + 1. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: The convergence of the integral of e^-(ax) from 0 to infinity is plausible because this is a decreasing function. However 1 / x^.99 is also decreasing on the same interval but it doesn't converge. The reason e^(- a x) converges is that it antiderivative is -1/a e^(-a x), and as x -> infinity this expression approaches zero. Thus the integral of this function from 0 to b is -1/a e^(-a b) - (-1/a e^0) = -1/a e^(-ab) + 1. If we allow the upper limit b to approach infinity, e^-(a b) will approach 0 and we'll get the finite result 1. ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: `q Section 7.8 Problem 3 7.8.18 convergence of integral of 1 / sqrt (`theta^2+1) from 1 to infinity YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: We start with 1 / (2 `theta) < 1 / `sqrt( `theta^2 + 1) and square both sides to get 1 / (4 `theta^2) < 1 / (`theta^2+1. After we multiply by the common denominator, we get ‘theta^2 + 1 < 4 `theta^2. ‘Theta^2 equals 1 < 3 `theta^2. The function 1 / sqrt (`theta^2+1) is divergent. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: ** If it wasn't for the 1 in the denominator this would be 1 / `sqrt(`theta^2) or just 1 / `theta, which is just 1 / `theta^p for p = 1. As we know this series would diverge (antiderivative of 1 / `theta in ln(`theta), which appropaches infinity as `theta -> infinity). As `theta gets large the + 1 shouldn't matter much, and we expect that 1 /`sqrt (`theta^2 + 1) diverges. If this expression is shown to be greater than something that diverges, then it must diverge. However, 1 / `sqrt ( `theta^2 + 1) < 1 / `theta, and being less than a divergent function that diverges does not prove divergence. We can adjust our comparison slightly: Since 1 / `theta gives a divergent integral, half of this quantity will yield half the integral and will still diverge. i.e., 1 / (2 `theta) diverges. • So if we can show that 1 / (2 `theta) < 1 / `sqrt( `theta^2 + 1) we will have proved the divergence of 1 / `sqrt(`theta^2 + 1). We prove this. Starting with 1 / (2 `theta) < 1 / `sqrt( `theta^2 + 1) we square both sides to get 1 / (4 `theta^2) < 1 / (`theta^2+1). Multiplying by common denominator we get `theta^2 + 1 < 4 `theta^2. Solving for `theta^2 we get 1 < 3 `theta^2 `sqrt(3) / 3 < `theta. This shows that for all values of `theta > `sqrt(3) / 3, or about `theta > .7, the function 1 / `sqrt(`theta^2+1) exceeds the value of the divergent function 1 / (2 `theta). Our function 1 / `sqrt(`theta^2 + 1) is therefore divergent. ** STUDENT ERROR: This integral converges because 1/sq rt(theta^2) approaches 0 rapidly. INSTRUCTOR COMMENT: ** It will indeed converge but your argument essentially says that it converges because it converges. Way too vague. You have to use a comparison test of some kind. ** You have the right idea, but being less than a converging comparison function would prove convergence; being greater than a diverging function would prove divergence. However being greater than a converging function, or being less than a diverging function, does not prove anything at all about the convergence of the original function. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: **** query problem 7.8.20 convergence of integral from 0 to 1 of 1 / `sqrt(`theta^3 + `theta) **** does the integral converge or diverge, and why? YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: The integral converges on the interval 1 to infinity. The integral of 1 / theta^(3/2) converges by the p test and integrand in this problem is less than 1 / theta^(3/2), so the original integral also converges by the comparison test. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: On the interval 1 to infinity the integral would converge: 1 / `sqrt(theta^3 + `theta) < 1 / `sqrt(`theta^3) = 1 / `theta^(3/2). This is an instance of 1 / x^p for x =`theta and p = 3/2. The integral of 1 / theta^(3/2) converges by the p test. The given integrand is less than 1 / theta^(3/2), so the original integral also converges, by the comparison test. On the interval from 0 to 1 the result might be surprising, in the context of the previous result: We might expect that the integral diverges, since the integral of 1 / theta^(3/2) diverges on this interval. All we would need to do is show that our original integrand is greater than 1 / theta^(3/2) However this isn't the case, our integrand is less than 1 / theta^(3/2) on the interval 0 < theta < 1. We could patch this up by showing that our original integrand is greater than some fixed multiple of 1 / theta^(3/2) (e.g., maybe 1 / sqrt (theta^3 + theta) is greater than .000000001 * 1 / theta^(3/2)) on this interval), but it just isn't so. Whatever constant multiple we choose, there is some neighborhood of x = 0 where the original function is less than our comparison function (you are invited to prove this). It turns out that as we approach zero, it is theta^3 that becomes insignificant, not theta. So the integrand must be compared 1 / theta^(1/2), or at least with a constant multiple of this expression. The integral 1 / theta^(1/2) on 0 <= theta <= 1 is convergent (its antiderivative is 2 theta^(1/2), which can be evaluated at 0 and 1; the value of the integral is just 2). Conveniently, 1 / (theta^3 + theta) is less than 1 / theta^(1/2), so the convergence of the latter ensures the convergence of the former.. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: query 8.1.5: x^2 + y^2 = 10 in 1st quadrant strip `dh and y position y above center at origin **** What is your expression for the Riemann sum? YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: We first solve for x to get x= +/-sqrt (10 - y^2). X is greater than 0 in the first quadrant so the solution for the first quadrant is x = +sqrt(10 - y^2). The height of the strip is sqrt(10 - y^2). We find that the strip’s area equals sqrt(10 - y^2)’dy if the width is ‘dy. We figure the interval parts by A = sum(`dA) = sum ( sqrt(10 - y^2) `dy). I am not sure where to go from here. confidence rating #$&*: 1 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: ****** ****** FOR HORIZONTAL STRIPS The solution for the x of the equation x^2 + y^2 = 10 is x = +- sqrt(10 - y^2). In the first quadrant we have x > = 0 so the first-quadrant solution is x = +sqrt(10 - y^2). A vertical strip at position y extends from the y axis to the point on the curve at which x = sqrt(10 - y^2), so the ‘altitude’ of the strip is sqrt(10 - y^2). If the width of the strip is `dy, then the strip has area `dA = sqrt(10 - y^2) `dy. The curve extends along the y axis from y = 0 to the x = 0 point y^2= 10, or for first-quadrant y values, to y = sqrt(10). If the y axis from y = 0 to y = sqrt(10) is partitioned into subintervals the the total area of the subintervals is approximated by A = sum(`dA) = sum ( sqrt(10 - y^2) `dy), and as interval width approaches zero we obtain the area A = integral ( sqrt(10 - y^2) dy, y, 0, sqrt(10)). The integral is performed by letting y = sqrt(10) sin(theta) so that dy = sqrt(10) cos(theta) * dTheta; 10 - y^2 will then equal 10 - 10 sin^2(theta) = 10 ( 1 - sin^2(theta)) = 10 sin^2(theta) and sqrt(10 - y^2) becomes sqrt(10) cos(theta); y = 0 becomes sin(theta) = 0 so that theta = 0; y = sqrt(10) becomes sqrt(10) sin(theta) = sqrt(10) or sin(theta) = 0, giving us theta = pi / 2. The integral is therefore transformed to Int(sqrt(10) cos(theta) * sqrt(10) cos(theta), theta, 0, pi/2) = Int(10 cos^2(theta) dTheta, theta, 0, pi/2). The integral of cos^2(theta) from 0 to pi/2 is pi/4, so that the integral of our function is 10 * pi/4 = 5/2 pi. Note that this is ¼ the area of the circle x^2 + y^2 = 10. FOR VERTICAL STRIPS The solution for the y of the equation x^2 + y^2 = 10 is y = +- sqrt(10 - x^2). In the first quadrant we have y > = 0 so the first-quadrant solution is y = +sqrt(10 - x^2). A vertical strip at position x extends from the x axis to the point on the curve at which y = sqrt(10 - x^2), so the ‘altitude’ of the strip is sqrt(10 - x^2). If the width of the strip is `dx, then the strip has area `dA = sqrt(10 - x^2) `dx. The curve extends along the x axis from x = 0 to the y = 0 point x^2= 10, or for first-quadrant x values, to x = sqrt(10). If the x axis from x = 0 to x = sqrt(10) is partitioned into subintervals the the total area of the subintervals is approximated by A = sum(`dA) = sum ( sqrt(10 - x^2) `dx), and as interval width approaches zero we obtain the area A = integral ( sqrt(10 - x^2) dx, x, 0, sqrt(10)). The integral is performed by letting x = sqrt(10) sin(theta) so that dx = sqrt(10) cos(theta) * dTheta; 10 - x^2 will then equal 10 - 10 sin^2(theta) = 10 ( 1 - sin^2(theta)) = 10 sin^2(theta) and sqrt(10 - x^2) becomes sqrt(10) cos(theta); x = 0 becomes sin(theta) = 0 so that theta = 0; x = sqrt(10) becomes sqrt(10) sin(theta) = sqrt(10) or sin(theta) = 0, giving us theta = pi / 2. The integral is therefore transformed to Int(sqrt(10) cos(theta) * sqrt(10) cos(theta), theta, 0, pi/2) = Int(10 cos^2(theta) dTheta, theta, 0, pi/2). The integral of cos^2(theta) from 0 to pi/2 is pi/4, so that the integral of our function is 10 * pi/4 = 5/2 pi. Note that this is ¼ the area of the circle x^2 + y^2 = 10. DER &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): I now understand how to find the integral and transform it in find the final solution. ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: Query problem 8.1.12. Half disk radius 7 m thickness 10 m, `dy slice parallel to rectangular base. YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: The slice has a length of 10, thickness ‘dy, and width of sqrt(49 - (c_i)^2). The Riemann sum is sum(10 * sqrt(49 - (c_i)^2) * `dy, i from 1 to n). As x approaches infinity, the limit of this equals 10 integral (sqrt(49 - y^2) dy, y from 0 to 7). The volume equals 10 * 49 pi / 2 = 490 pi / 2 = 245 pi. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: STUDENT SOLUTION here we used the pythagorean Theorem which is y^2 + (7/2)^2 = 7^2 y = square root of 49 - (7/2) Then we use the area of a semicircle which is w * delta h = 49 - (7/2) * delta h cm^2 then we get 49 arcsin 1 = 49 / 2 pi = 65.23 cm^2 INSTRUCTOR RESPONSE You have to do the Riemann sum, get the integral then perform the integration. A slice of the region parallel to the y axis is a rectangle. If the y coordinate is y = c_i then the slice extends to an x coordinate such that x^2 + (c_i)^2 = 7^2, or x = sqrt(49 - (c_i)^2). So if the y axis, from y = -7 to y = 7, is partitioned into subintervals y_0 = -7, y1, y2, ..., y_i, ..., y_n = 7, with sample point c_i in subinterval number i, the corresponding 'slice' of the solid has thickness `dy, width sqrt(49 - (c_i)^2) and length 10 so its volume is 10 * sqrt(49 - (c_i)^2) * `dy and the Riemann sum is sum(10 * sqrt(49 - (c_i)^2) * `dy, i from 1 to n). The limit of this sum, as x approaches infinity, is then integral ( 10 * sqrt(49 - y^2) dy, y from 0 to 7) = 10 integral (sqrt(49 - y^2) dy, y from 0 to 7). Using the trigonometric substitution y = 7 sin(theta), analogous to the substitution used in the preceding solution, we find that the integral is 49 pi / 2 and the result is 10 times this integral so the volume is 10 * 49 pi / 2 = 490 pi / 2 = 245 pi. A decimal approximation to this result is between 700 and 800. Compare this with the volume of a 'box' containing the figure: The 'box' would be 14 units wide and 7 units high, and 10 units long, so would have volume 14 * 7 * 10 = 980. The solid clearly fills well over half the box, so a volume between 700 and 800 appears very reasonable. DER &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: query problem 8.2.14 (previously 8.2.11) arc length x^(3/2) from 0 to 2
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YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: The hypotenuse of the slope triangle is is sqrt((`dx)^2 + (m `dx)^2) = sqrt( (1 + m^2) * (`dx)^2) = sqrt( 1 + m^2) * `dx. After substituting for m, we find that `dL_i = sqrt(1 + f ‘ ^2 (c_i) ) * `dx. The Riemann sum equals the sum of (sqrt(1 + f ‘ ^2 (c_i) ) * `dx). The sum runs from i=1 to i=n. N= (b-a)/ ‘dx. This equals (2-0)/’dx. confidence rating #$&*: 1 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: On an interval of length `dx, containing x coordinate c_i, the ‘slope triangle’ at the top of the approximating trapezoid has slope approximately equal to f ‘ (c_i). The hypotenuse of this triangle corresponds to the arc length. A triangle with ‘run’ `dx and slope m has ‘rise’ equal to m * `dx. So its hypotenuse is sqrt((`dx)^2 + (m `dx)^2) = sqrt( (1 + m^2) * (`dx)^2) = sqrt( 1 + m^2) * `dx. For small `dx, the hypotenuse is very close to the curve so its length is very near the arc length of the curve on the given interval. Since the slope here is f ‘(c_i), we substitute f ‘ (c_i) for m and find that the contribution to arc length is `dL_i = sqrt(1 + f ‘ ^2 (c_i) ) * `dx So that the Riemann sum is Sum(`dL_i) = sum ( sqrt(1 + f ‘ ^2 (c_i) ) * `dx ), where the sum runs from i = 1 to i = n, with n = (b - a) / `dx = (2 - 0) / `dx. In other words, n is the number of subintervals into which the interval of integration is broken. This sum approaches the integral of sqrt(1 + (f ' (x)) ^2, over the interval of integration. In general, then, the arc length is arc length = integral(sqrt(1 + (f ' (x)) ^2) dx, x from a to b). In this case f(x) = x^(3/2) so f ' (x) = 3/2 x^(1/2), and (f ' (x))^2 = (3/2 x^(1/2))^2 = 9/4 x. Thus sqrt( 1 + (f ‘ (x))^2) = sqrt(1 + 9/4 x) and we find the integral of this function from x = 0 to x = 2. The integral is found by letting u = 1 + 9/4 x, so that u ‘ = 9/4 and dx = 4/9 du, so that our integral becomes Integral ( sqrt( 1 + 9/4 x) dx, x from 0 to 2) = Integral ( sqrt(u) * 4/9 du, x from 0 to 2) = 4/9 Integral ( sqrt(u) du, x from 0 to 2) Our antiderivative is 4/9 * 2/3 u^(3/2), which is the same as 8/27 (1 + 9/4 x) ^(3/2). Between x = 0 and x = 2, the change in this antiderivative is 8/27 ( 1 + 9/4 * 2) ^(3/2) - 8/27 ( 1 + 9/4 * 0) ^(3/2) = 8/27 ( ( 11/2 )^(3/2) - 1) = 3.526, approximately. Thus the arc length is integral(sqrt(1 + (f ' (x)) ^2) dx, x from a to b = Integral ( sqrt( 1 + 9/4 x) dx, x from 0 to 2) = 3.526. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): I understand the process now. I needed to know that arc length = integral(sqrt(1 + (f ' (x)) ^2) dx, x from a to b). ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: query problem 8.2.41 (31 4th edition, 21 3d edition) volume of region bounded by y = e^x, x axis, lines x=0 and x=1, cross-sections perpendicular to the x axis are squares YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: The area of the slice is a square with an area of (e^x)^2, which we can simplify to e^(2x). The slice’s thickness is ‘dx, and the volume is e^(2c_i)* ‘dx. The Riemann sum equals: sum(e^(2 c_i * `dx). The antiderivative is changed to give us: 1/2 e^(2 * 1) - 1/2 e^(2 * 0) = 1/2 (e^2 - 1). The volume ends up being approximately 3.19. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: x runs from 0 to 1. At a given value of x the 'altitude' of the y vs. x graph is e^x, and a slice of the solid figure is a square with sides e^x so its area is (e^x)^2 = e^(2x). If we partition the interval from x = 0 to x = 1 into subintervals defined by x_0 = 0, x_1, x_2, ..., x_i, ..., x_n, with interval number i containing sample point c_i, then the slice corresponding to interval number i has the following characteristics: the thickness of the 'slice' is `dx the cross-sectional area of the 'slice' at the sample point x = c_i is e^(2x) = e^(2 * c_i) so the volume of the 'slice' is e^(2 * c_i) * `dx. The Riemann sum is therefore sum(e^(2 * c_i * `dx) and its limit is integral(e^(2 x) dx, x from 0 to 1). Our antiderivative is easily found to be 1/2 e^(2 x) and the change in our antiderivative is 1/2 e^(2 * 1) - 1/2 e^(2 * 0) = 1/2 e^2 - 1/2 = 1/2 (e^2 - 1). The approximate value of this result about 3.19. A 'box' containing this region would have dimensions 1 by e by e, with volume e^2 = 7.3 or so. The figure fills perhaps half this box, so our results are reasonably consistent. &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: **** 8.1.28 (3d edition 8.1.29) volume of dam base 1400 m long, 160 m wide, 150 m high, narrows to 10 m wide at top. **** What is the volume of the dam? YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: We know that the linear function equals 160 - y. The volume of the strip is 1400 (160- y1) ‘dy1. The antiderivative of 1400(160-y) is 1400 (160y - (y^2/(2))). Solving for the limits, we get 1400 (160 *150 - 150^2/(2)) -0 = approx. 30 million. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: ** The width at height y is a linear function equal to 160 when y = 0 and to 10 when y = 150. This linear function is 160 - y. 'So a strip at altitude yi having width `dyi, through the dam from front to back, has area (160 - yi) `dyi', and the volume corresponding to this strip is 1400 (160 - yi) `dyi. This leads to the integral of 1400 (160 - y) with respect to y, for y = 0 to y = 150. Antiderivative is 1400 (160 y - y^2/2); evaluating at limits we get 1400 (160 * 150 - 150^2 / 2) - 0 = 1400 ( 24000 - 22500/2) = 1400 (24000 - 11250) = 1400 ( 22750) = 30 million, approx. ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: problem 7.8.24 convergence of integral from 1 to infinity of (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) and [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: For x > 1, we have (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) < 1 / (2 x^2). We know that 1 / ( 2 x^2) < 1 / x^2, and in [1, infinity) x^2 is a convergent p series, we see that (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) is convergent on [1, infinity). We expect [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) to act similar to (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2). The function is close to the divergent function, so we assume that it diverges. (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) > 1 /(2 x^(1/2) for x. The first series diverges since the right side is a multiple of a p-series that diverges. confidence rating #$&*:3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: ** The first thing we see is that (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) acts for large x like the ratio of the leading terms in the numerator and denominator: 2 x^2 / ( 4 x^4) = 1 / (2 x^2), which is quite convergent so we expect that the integral will converge. All we have to do is spell out the details to be sure. There's a little sticking point here, because of the -2 in the denominator and +1 in the numerator we can't say that the given expression is always less than 1 / (2 x^2). So let's solve to see where (2x^2 + 1) / ( 4 x^4 + 4 x^2 - 2 ) < 1 / ( 2 x^2). This expression is equivalent to 2 x^2 ( 2 x^2 + 1) < 4 x^4 + 4 x^2 - 2, or to 4 x^4 + 2 x^2 < 4 x^4 + 4 x^2 - 2, which is in turn equivalent to 0 < 2 x^2 - 2, equiv to 0 < x^2 - 1 which occurs for x > 1 or for x < -1. So for x > 1 we have (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) < 1 / (2 x^2). Noting that 1 / ( 2 x^2) < 1 / x^2, and that in [1, infinity) x^2 is a convergent p series, we see that (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) is convergent on [1, infinity). Now [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) acts a whole lot like ( 1 / (2x^2) )^(1/4) = 1 / 2^(1/4) * 1 / x^(1/2) . We are thus looking at comparison with a p series with p = .5, which diverges on [1, infinity). We therefore suspect that our function is divergent. The problem is that [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) < ( 1 / (2x^2) )^(1/4) = 1 / 2^(1/4) * 1 / x^(1/2), and being < something that diverges doesn't imply divergence. However the function is so close to the divergent function that we know in our hearts that it doesn't matter. Our hearts don't prove a thing, but they can sometimes lead us in the right direction. We need to show that [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) is greater than something that diverges. Fortunately this is easy to do. All we need is something just a little smaller than 1 / 2^(1/4) * 1 / x^(1/2). If we change the 1 / 2^(1/4) to 1/2 we get 1 / (2 x^(1/2)), which is still divergent but a bit smaller than the original divergent expression. Now we hypothesize that [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) > 1 /(2 x^(1/2) ). Solving this inequality for x we first take the 4th powe of both sides to obtain [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] > 1 /(16 x^2 ) which we rearrange to get (2x^2+1) * (16 x^2) > (4x^4+4x^2-2) which we expand to get 32 x^4 + 16 x^2 > 4 x^4 + 4x^2 - 2 or 28 x^2 + 12 x + 2 > 0. If we evaluate the discriminant of the quadratic function on the left-hand side we find that it is negative so that it can never be zero. Since for x = 0 the quadratic is equal to 2, it must always be positive. Thus the inequality is satisfied for all x. It follows that [ (2x^2+1)/(4x^4+4x^2-2) ] ^ (1/4) > 1 /(2 x^(1/2) ) for all x and, since the right-hand side is a multiple of a divergent p-series, the original series diverges. ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating: OK ********************************************* Question: problem 8.2.23 was 8.1.12 volume of region bounded by y = e^x, x axis, lines x=0 and x=1, cross-sections perpendicular to the x axis are squares YYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY Your solution: The y value at x is e^x, so the cross-section has square dimensions of e^x * e^x. This equals e^(2x), which we integrate between 0 and 1. The antiderivative is (1/2)*e^(2x). The integral is 0.5(e^2) - 0.5e^0 = approx. 3.2. confidence rating #$&*: 3 ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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Given Solution: ** At coordinate x = .3, for example, the y value is e^.3, so the cross-section is a square with dimensions e^.3 * e^.3 = e^.6. At general coordinate x the y value is e^x so the cross-section is a square dimensions e^x * e^x = e^(2x). So you integrate e^(2x) between the limits 0 and 1. The antiderivative is .5 e^(2x) so the integral is .5 e^(2 * 1) - .5 e^(2 * 0) = .5 (e^2 - 1) = 3.2, approx. ** INCORRECT STUDENT ANSWER integral from 0 to 1 (e^2x dx) = x^2 * e^2x from 0 to 1 = 7.3891 - 0 = 7.3891 INSTRUCTOR RESPONSE ** you have the right integral but your result is incorrect ** ** Your integration is faulty. x^2 e^(2x) is not an antiderivative of e^(2x). The derivative of x^2 e^(2x) = 2x e^(2x) + 2 x^2 e^(2x), not e^(2x). ** &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique Rating:OK " Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique rating: " Self-critique (if necessary): ------------------------------------------------ Self-critique rating: #*&!